orejon4
Well-Known Member
Wait, which one is it?
Because in the off duty IR cop thread, your comment there justified drug dealing as being the effect of post industrialization. As a result, you said, it wasn't fair to compare a drug dealer's lifestyle value system with the values of the "black agrarian poor of the South and initial black urban migrate(rs)", who worked an honest day's work.
Yet in this one, it's because of 400 years of brutal oppression and enslavement to justify, in your words..."the Black community's sociopathic behavior...ie: drug dealing."
??
Nothing in either statement said that it 'justified' drug-dealing. The statements offered explanations for the different behavioral norms of agrarian black culture (the foundational culture of African-American culture generally) and modern urban disfunctional black culture. A lot of the things rural blacks did were a byproduct of the very real threat of violent racial retaliation by whites (anyone with northern and southern family members can attest to some of the very real cultural differences here) and overt racism they experienced.
It's not a contradiction to note that two distinct socioeconomic groups have differing responses to similar stimuli. More correctly stated, the urban poor are the latest variant in the longitudinal development of US black culture which is, throughout the 400+ years of experience in this country, a series of varying survival strategies and responses to systemic racial oppression and its deforming effects on human potential. Some of these responses are acquiescent, others defiant, and others dysfunctional. Differing responses don't validate the conditions, they are just different strategies and perspectives based on different times, geography and conditions. In each instance, the defining characteristic is that it is an abnormal state for any group to live in an environment that negates its existence and that has harmful effects on its development.
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